"Have got" is simply an idiomatic version of "have" for possession, no more, no less. Compare these:-"he once got arrested" "he was once arrested""I've got to go" "I must go""I have got a car" (or even "I've got a car") "I have a car"(or even "I've a car")"I've got a good mind to..." "I've a good mind to..""You've got no right" "You have (you've) no right". It should be "I ate breakfast at 9AM.". All these things influence the actual meaning conveyed, and undermine the idea that there are all-time all-encompassing rules, or 'right' or 'wrong' English. It is enough to be clear, use appropriate intonation, register and style, and know enough about the culture not to put your foot in it. One problem is that every attempt here to explain some 'subtle difference' between 'have' and 'have got' involves some interpretation based on obtaining something, and as my examples above show, grammatical possession is about much more than owning or obtaining something. Just as a point of interest: the use of "must" instead of "have to" or "should" is very common in South African English, especially with those who speak both English and Afrikaans.Probably due in some respects to translation from Afrikaans.Phrases like "you must see this" or "you must come visit" are much more common than the "have to" or "should" variety. In spoken French it is used instead of the passé simple to talk about the past. "have got." In some contexts, there is very little difference between "have to" and "must", and your example is a good one. In English it is used the same way in the UK and in most other parts of the English-speaking world except that in the USA its use decreases as you move form the east coast to the west. @Curious indeed - you might, but it would seem that not so many others would: "I've to say" - Google hits - 3 million"I've got to say" - Google hits - 62 million"I have to say" - Google hits - 92 milion. As cnelsonrepublic says, "have" is an auxiliary verb. I think this is mainly British usage, which is why you might not find it in US dictionaries (but you will find it if you google it) . "I have a blue car," "I have brown hair," "I have black shoes," or "I have a nice, furry jacket." I guess I’ll need (oops, my mistake) I guess I’ve got to be ok with ads like “Got Milk?” and its derivatives like a shirt I recently saw printed “Got CPR?”. It's simply an idiomatic version of 'I have' which can only be used in the present; for other times we need to use 'have'. It's not much of a stretch to use the present perfect to refer to actions in the present. One moment... italki is changing the way the world learns foreign languages. OK. First, from the American persepective, 'have got' in the simple present tense to express obligation or current possession is perfectly good (albeit informal) English. Both Oxford and Cambridge Advanced Learner's Dictionaries list 'have got' under 'have', not 'get'. more_vert.   Report Abuse. Thank you! Second, I confess I cannot understand this current obsession with redundancy. Jim, of course "have" and "got" belong next to each other. "Have Milk?" I've got definition, meaning, English dictionary, synonym, see also 'they've',we've',you've',you've (he's, she's, etc.) Others have been more lenient. At the very least, all “have got” is is four more keys typed with no change in meaning. When someone does something that goes against you. And with your example of "I got paid yesterday", you are into a different use of "got" altogether, as a sort of less formal passive. Boots and fur-lined leather coat. McGraw-Hill Dictionary of American Idioms and Phrasal Verbs. From on high you say "get a grip," but that suggests that language is somehow not open to friendly discussion about it's inconsistencies.   Permalink And what about 'have got to' and 'have to' - where's the subtle difference there, I wonder? I think "have got" implies there is/was/will be an action of some sort on the speaker's part. As for whether it's redundant or not, is of supreme indifference to me (as you could see just then), it's the way most of us speak. And that there are some general differences between British English and American English is pretty obvious. I for one am thrilled to hear that I may continue to use "I've got" with relative impunity. I've Got a Feeling by The Beatles song meaning, ... Nc NOBODY, not even the harshest lead vocalist of the most headbanging heavy metal band screamed like McCartney did in I've Got A Feeling. Many of my students communicate with British colleagues (or Germans who speak English very well), and they have to be aware of these things if they are to understand them. What yu don't hear (much) in the US, is "I have got" for "I have". I don't consider that redundancy. Use which ever form you like in everyday, informal conversation. For example, you say 'I 've got a new car', but not ' I've got a bath every morning '. Yes, that's how it probably started, but it hasn't had that meaning for centuries. ‘Got’ and ‘gotten’ were both in use in England once, and both came to North America in pre-Revolutionary times. 8 votes In old German it was the same as in British English but now is used to mean the same as the past tense. The simple answer is that "I have" is more commonly used in written English and "I've got" is more commonly used in spoken English. I don't think anyone disagrees that "I hav" is good and proper. advertising campaign example shows that got is often used in the context of acquiring. Here's the entry: http://books.google.com/books?id=2yJusP0vrdgC&lpg=PP1&dq=merriam-websters%20dictionary%20of%20english%20usage&pg=PA498#v=onepage&q=have%20got&f=false. ", I've got the world on a string, sitting on a rainbow, Today,they have got a modern lap top computer.   Report Abuse. Unless of course I was writing for the New Yorker, but that's not going to happen. on one's. So focussing entirely on the words is by no means the whole story, although in teaching English one must start somewhere. I've just noticed (or even observed that) it's -11 C outside! In the spoken form, 'got to' is shortened to 'gotta' and the word 'have' is dropped. Barry Gibb re-recorded the song with Keith Urban for his 2021 album Greenfields. Why say “I have got” or “I’ve got” when “I have” conveys the exact meaning? That's why it's listed in dictionaries under "have", not "get". When this is not the case, or when a speaker is being a literalist dick, "Have" refers to possession in the most general sense, "got" is used to focus attention on the specific situation. Languages are fluent and change. Many languages of Europe 'ave a form using "have+participle"; however, the exact usage is different. The word "got" has a bad rep. FULL STOP indeed! lmao lmao grow up GOT GOT GOT GOT GOT GOT GOT ps im glad that whoever made this site is the king of grammer and created the english language to be able to tell us all the way that we can use it. But at least he's got the weekend free". Then it becomes clearer. is ok, but not "I have eaten breakfast at 9AM." So perhaps not a FULL STOP, but more of a ellipse? Now you should know that I've got can mean I possess in both BrE and AmE. As a Canadian raised in the US, I think I may be stuck somewhere between British and American usage on some of these topics. they've, we've, you've, you've (he's, she's, etc.) No.   Permalink But as someone who teaches foreigners English and writes a grammar blog, I have to base my arguments on something rather more solid than a hunch. That IS NOT colloquial. The only difference is grammatical - we can only use "have got" in present simple - and one of formality. But without the use of "just" or other words to reinforce that we mean "get", we would normally simply take it to mean possession, as in "I've got a cold". Everyone's pretty much said it. Well yes, I am relatively sure of myself because I've been teaching English for ten years, and I also checked out my facts fairly carefully before commenting, see references above. 19 votes That's why you'll find it listed in learner's dictionaries under "have" rather than under "get". When someone pisses you off in some way. First of all: I made a mistake in my earlier post. It's sort of like "letting your hair down" amongst friends. @Sharm - not in BrE at least, where 'I've got a car' means 'I possess a car', whereas 'I've just got a car' means 'I've just obtained a car'. But I hardly ever do any formal writing, and in spoken language, at least in British English, 'have got' tends to be more natural, more idiomatic (in part precisely because it is less formal). This site is a revelation. It's natural Standard English - just check a dictionary (BrE are likely to have more about it. Last, it's a living, fluid language that we are discussing here (not that it matters; both are correct). 2 votes Americans more often say, for instance, "I have a meeting this afternoon." And I still argue that 'I've got a new car' is easier to say then 'I have a new car' - it involves less mouth movement. And please don’t use the excuse that it’s normal communication, with that reasoning "they’re" and "there" will soon be synonymous. Folks often switch to "I have" when writing and benote "gotten" as the ppl. Conversely, everything you have got, you still have, unless of course, you've disposed of it somehow (in which case, you'd probably say "had got").   Report Abuse. Fore example, and American teacher may ask 'Did you do your homework?" It's never been unusual for me to use "have got", fully, in speech. Why is it that most foreign learners grasp this quite easily, but some native speakers just can't see the wood for the trees, I wonder? I explained they misheard me and that I actually said "I've got," which led to them blasting me about the correct way being "I have." One cannot hope to cover everything. So, there are some scenarios where I have got just will not do. "She's got naturally wavy hair and she's got a friendly disposition." (notice either way,it is past tense) If you know of a legitimate reference that goes further, let me know. @Kernel Sanders - I'm afraid I have to disagree with you about these nuanced differences. The "Got Milk?" May refer to having someone's back.   Permalink Similarly being perfect in grammar is useless without a good vocabulary and a relative fluency in speaking. The present perfect has a number of wrinkles but a simple explanation is to say: I have seen the light of the lord = (past statement) I saw the light of the lord at some undefined point in the past AND (present implication) the information in the past statement has some significance for the present and I invite you to think what it is. I explained to his teacher that have got is used colloquially to mean possession, but its usual meaning is to acquire. If I teach somebody Yorkshire dialect, as attractive as it is to me, its not going to get them very far, so of course I teach them Standard English. What is more important? My EFL students can handle it easily enough. If you think "I must travel to work every day by tram and when I arrive I must sign the attendance register." @HairyScot - I totally agree with you that 'I've got' has exactly the same meaning as 'I have' (and that's where you'll find it in the dictionary) and that porsche has got it wrong here. Using this form with "since", 'how long" and "for" to indicate a period up to the present is, it is true, very English. 1 vote Most of us use redundancy the whole time in spoken language. First, I suggest you do a little experiment. Teaching English as a second (or third) language is a somewhat special case, which is dominated by the required end-use: English for business purposes focuses on business phrases, situations and vocabulary, and pays scant attention to slang, general idioms, and informal items which are not important. - "Mrs Thatcher got her degree in chemistry in 1947. 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